No, it's something I've been wondering for a while; not to exempt Philly from the US's generally dishonorable history in this area, but there actually was a treaty and a purchase at the outset, which seems like it complicates things.

In hindsight, we would say the treaty (including the considers under which it was made and even the larger context) was fair? Did all parties actually agree to it, and agree on what it meant? Have the parties maintained their obligations? In very few circumstances is it “yes” to all of those.